A possible syntactic inconsistency inside the P vs. NP formulation

2 pointsposted a day ago
by AnonymousXipang

3 Comments

This is not a proof or a claimed solution.

The manuscript attempts to point out that one syntactic assumption inside the standard P vs NP formulation may behave inconsistently when it is expanded structurally.

I would appreciate refutation, counterexamples, or clarification from those familiar with complexity theory or formal logic.

I'm not sure I understand this article, but the argument you present seems to be that when considering P and NP as relational objects, they don't have the same signature, thus cannot be compared, so the statement "P = NP" is meaningless?